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c/t2dglp1·posted 2 years ago by u/nhs_waitlist_n

the A1c question that gets asked weekly, answered properly

Discussion Clean Column ×7

the A1c question that gets asked weekly, answered properly. Not a hot take, just something I have not seen said plainly here.

Continuous monitoring shows the shape: postprandial excursions, overnight behaviour and time in range. Two people with identical A1c can have very different distributions.

The order things move in, since nobody explains it and it worries people.

Postprandial excursions generally respond earliest. Variability tends to narrow before the average does, which is visible on a sensor and invisible on a lab result. Fasting glucose is often the laggard, and A1c — being a three-month average — is the last thing to reflect anything.

So a month in which the sensor looks better and the fasting number has not moved is the ordinary sequence, not a contradiction. Knowing that in advance would have saved me a quarter of unnecessary worry, which is why it is worth writing down.

On hypoglycaemia, because the risk gets attributed to the wrong thing constantly.

Incretin-based agents stimulate insulin secretion in a glucose-dependent way: the effect scales with glycaemia rather than acting unconditionally. That is why monotherapy risk is low. Where risk rises substantially is in combination with agents that lower glucose independently of the current level.

Which means the question "does this cause hypos" is not answerable without knowing the rest of the regimen — and that the person who can answer it is the one who wrote the regimen. Nothing on this board is a substitute for that conversation, and the good threads here end by saying so.

That is everything I have. The rest is opinion and I have tried to keep it out.

3,119 up / 2,516 down55% upvoted28 commentsid 1rgs1d23 Jun 2024

28 comments

23 in this archive, depth 3

best — the order this archive was captured in

u/swirl_dont_shakereconstitution43 points·2 years ago

The three numbers, and what each one can and cannot tell you.

A1c is an average over about three months, weighted to the recent weeks. It cannot show variability and it lags change. Continuous monitoring shows the shape — excursions, overnight, time in range — and is where improvement usually becomes visible first. Fingersticks are point measurements, useful for sanity-checking a sensor and for specific questions.

Most of the frustrated posts here come from expecting one of the three to answer a question that belongs to another. And all three are inputs to a conversation with whoever manages your care, which is not this board.

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u/nhs_waitlist_nOPUK17 points·2 years ago

Variability dropped before the average did, which was visible on the sensor and invisible on the lab result.

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u/camila_vasquez9 points·2 years ago

variability matters as much as the mean

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u/tomas_lundgren0 points·2 years ago

A1c reflects average glycaemia over roughly the preceding three months, weighted towards the most recent weeks. It cannot show variability and it lags any change you make.

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u/emil_okwuosa-37 points·2 years ago

I would not compare your numbers to that population. Different baseline, different regimen, different trial.

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u/adnan_karlsen29 points·2 years ago

Agreed. A1c is an integrated average over roughly three months and treating it as a current reading causes a lot of unnecessary alarm.

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u/santiago_rasmussen21 points·2 years ago

Fasting or postprandial?

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u/marisol_moreau5 points·2 years ago

a single high reading is not a trend

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u/jonas_cardoso14 points·2 years ago

Certain conditions affect A1c independently of glycaemia. If a result looks inconsistent with the sensor data, that is a question for whoever manages your care rather than for this board.

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u/nhs_waitlist_nOPUK10 points·2 years ago

A1c is a three-month average and it lags everything

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u/nhs_waitlist_nOPUK7 points·2 years ago

My triglycerides moved and it turned out to have nothing to do with glucose at all.

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u/step_count_stan10 points·2 years ago

metformin and an incretin agonist are not in competition

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u/marit_mwangi6 points·2 years ago

a1c can be affected by things that have nothing to do with glucose

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u/tomas_lokken5 points·2 years ago

What else is in the regimen?

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u/gentle_correctionMOD3 points·2 years ago

Retitled — the original quoted an obesity endpoint as a glycaemic one.

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u/marta_trevino1 point·2 years ago

Incretin-based agents stimulate insulin secretion in a glucose-dependent manner, which is why hypoglycaemia risk with them alone is low. Risk rises with agents that act independently of glycaemia.

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u/teodor_duarte1 point·2 years ago·edited

Incretin-based agents stimulate insulin secretion in a glucose-dependent manner, which is why hypoglycaemia risk with them alone is low.

Agreed, and the glucose-dependence point is the reason the risk profile reads the way it does.

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u/karim_ramos1 point·2 years ago

Cosigning that postprandial excursions improve first and the fasting number is the laggard.

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u/sunday_shot_sal0 points·2 years ago

The diabetes and obesity programmes are separate, with different populations and different primary endpoints. Reading a result across from one to the other is not a comparison.

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[removed]1 point·2 years ago

[removed by moderator]

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u/bianca_demir1 point·2 years ago

How long between the two A1c measurements?

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u/nils_ferreira1 point·2 years ago

the diabetes trials report different endpoints from the obesity ones

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u/kasper_cabrera1 point·2 years ago

Postprandial excursions typically respond earlier than fasting glucose, so the sequence people observe is not a sign that something is not working.

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Type 2 diabetes as the original indication: A1c trajectories, CGM traces, hypoglycaemia risk when stacked with sulfonylureas or insulin, metformin combinations, and why the weight-loss conversation sometimes drowns out the glycaemic one.

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