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c/t2dglp1·submitted 1 year ago by u/jonas_cardoso

[Discussion] the glycaemic control advice in here is 2 years out of date

Discussionbranch of 7 comments

The title is the argument: the glycaemic control advice in here is 2 years out of date. Here is the rest of it. Figures up front so nobody has to dig: 2 years. On hypoglycaemia, because the risk gets attributed to the wrong thing constantly. Incretin-based agents stimulate insulin secretion in a glucose-dependent…

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7 comments, started 1 year ago
u/lyophile_lou72 points·1 year ago

Postprandial excursions typically respond earlier than fasting glucose, so the sequence people observe is not a sign that something is not working.

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u/fasting_insulin_fMOD32 points·1 year ago·edited

Identifying details redacted from the exported report above.

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u/cloudy_vial_carol-8 points·1 year ago

postprandial excursions are where most of the improvement shows up first

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u/kian_solberg1 point·1 year ago

I would not compare your numbers to that population. Different baseline, different regimen, different trial.

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u/slow_logbook_notes3015 points·1 year ago

Identifying details redacted from the exported report above.

This is the distinction that resolves most of the confusion here — average versus shape.

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u/marisol_moreau16 points·1 year ago

This. Hypoglycaemia risk in this class is driven mostly by the other agents in the regimen.

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u/teodor_duarte5 points·1 year ago

the diabetes trials report different endpoints from the obesity ones

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Type 2 diabetes as the original indication: A1c trajectories, CGM traces, hypoglycaemia risk when stacked with sulfonylureas or insulin, metformin combinations, and why the weight-loss conversation sometimes drowns out the glycaemic one.

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